It does not appear to be a very good translation of this word.ġ473 (εγώ) is the personal pronoun, "I", so it tells us that Jesus was talking about Himself.ġ510.2.1 (ειμι) is the real core of the question. Is "I have been" a reasonable translation of the Greek text?įrom the interlinear it looks like it boils down to, how should ἐγώ εἰμι be translated? I don't know Greek, so I'd like to hear the expert opinion. Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am." Jesus said to them: “Most truly I say to YOU, Before Abraham came into existence, I have been.” All other translations (that I've seen) translate "I am" whereas NWT translates "I have been" (NASB shown as an example): The translators of the New World Translation (NWT) almost certainly know Greek better than me and are smarter than me, so maybe they had a good reason for their translation that I just can't see.Ĭomparing the New World Translation's take on John 8:58 to other English translations, we notice it's quite different from the rest. Now that we have an expert community, I'd like to check. I already assumed the opposite in an answer to why there are so many Bible translations, on Christianity.SE.
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